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Chemistry Quiz Chapters 5-8

 1. 

Charles's law states that:
A)
Equal amounts of gases occupy the same volume at constant temperature and pressure.
B)
The volume of a fixed amount of gas is inversely proportional to its pressure at constant temperature.
C)
The volume of a fixed amount of gas is directly proportional to its temperature in Kelvin at constant pressure.
D)
The total pressure of a mixture of gases is the simple sum of the partial pressure of all of the gaseous compounds.
E)
The rates of effusion of gases are inversely proportional to the square roots of their molar masses.
 

 2. 

You are holding four identical balloons each containing 10.0 g of a different gas. The balloon containing which gas is the largest balloon?
A)
H2
B)
He
C)
Ne
D)
O2
E)
All have the same volume.
 

 3. 

Which of the following is the best qualitative graph of P versus molar mass of a 1-g sample of different gases at constant volume and temperature?
A)
mc003-1.jpg
B)
mc003-2.jpg
C)
mc003-3.jpg
D)
mc003-4.jpg
E)
none of these
 

 4. 

The diffusion of a gas is faster than the effusion of a gas.
 

 5. 

The van der Waals equation, nRT = [P + a(n/V)2] (Vnb), incorporates corrections to the ideal gas law in order to account for the properties of real gases. One of the corrections accounts for
A)
the possibility of chemical reaction between molecules
B)
the finite volume of molecules
C)
the quantum behavior of molecules
D)
the fact that average kinetic energy is inversely proportional to temperature
E)
the possibility of phase changes when the temperature is decreased or the pressure is increased
 

 6. 

Of the following real gases, which would be expected to have the lowest van der Waals correction for intermolecular attractions?
A)
H2
B)
Cl2
C)
NH3
D)
O2
E)
not enough information to determine
 

 7. 

Which of the following pollutant gases is not produced directly in a combustion engine?
A)
CO
B)
CO2
C)
O3
D)
NO
E)
NO2
 

 8. 

For the reaction H2O(l) ® H2O(g) at 298 K and 1.0 atm, DH is more positive than DE by 2.5 kJ/mol. This quantity of energy can be considered to be
A)
the heat flow required to maintain a constant temperature
B)
the work done in pushing back the atmosphere
C)
the difference in the H–O bond energy in H2O(l) compared to H2O(g)
D)
the value of DH itself
E)
none of these
 

 9. 

Consider the reaction
               H2(g) + mc009-1.jpgO2(g) ® H2O(l)     DH° = –286 kJ
Which of the following is true?
A)
The reaction is exothermic.
B)
The reaction is endothermic.
C)
The enthalpy of the products is less than that of the reactants.
D)
Heat is absorbed by the system.
E)
Both A and C are true.
 

 10. 

All of the following statements about the greenhouse effect are true except:
A)
It occurs only on earth.
B)
The molecules H2O and CO2 play an important role in retaining the atmosphere's heat.
C)
Low humidity allows efficient radiation of heat back into space.
D)
The carbon dioxide content of the atmosphere is quite stable.
E)
A and D
 

 11. 

Which of the following is not being considered as an energy source for the future?
A)
ethanol
B)
methanol
C)
seed oil
D)
shale oil
E)
carbon dioxide
 

 12. 

Consider the following data:
 
DH° (kJ)
Ca(s) + 2C(graphite) ® CaC2(s)
–62.8
Ca(s) + sa012-1.jpgO2(g) ® CaO(s)
–635.5
CaO(s) + H2O(l) ® Ca(OH)2(aq)
–653.1
C2H2(g) + sa012-2.jpgO2(g) ® 2CO2(g) + H2O(l)
–1300
C(graphite) + O2(g) ® CO2(g)
–393.51
Use Hess’ law to find the change in enthalpy at 25°C for the following equation:
          CaC2(s) + 2H2O(l) ® Ca(OH)2(aq) + C2H2(g)
 

 13. 

All matter exhibits either particulate or wave properties exclusively.
 

 14. 

When an electron in a 2p orbital of a particular atom makes a transition to the 2s orbital, a photon of approximate wavelength 629.1 nm is emitted. The energy difference between these 2p and 2s orbitals is
A)
3.16 ´ 10–28 J
B)
3.16 ´ 10–19 J
C)
3.16 ´ 10–17 J
D)
1.25 ´ 10–31 J
E)
none of these
 

 15. 

Bohr's model correctly describes the hydrogen atom and other small atoms.
 

 16. 

The number of orbitals having a given value of l is equal to
A)
2l + 1
B)
2n + 2
C)
3l
D)
l + ml
E)
the number of lobes in each orbital
 

 17. 

The magnetic quantum number is related to the orientation of the orbital in space relative to the other orbitals in the atom.
 

 18. 

The size of an orbital is arbitrarily defined.
 

 19. 

Which of the following atoms or ions has three unpaired electrons?
A)
N
B)
O
C)
Al
D)
S2–
E)
Ti2+
 

 20. 

Which of the following atoms has three electrons in p orbitals in its valence shell?
A)
Ba
B)
Ga
C)
V
D)
Bi
E)
none of these
 

 21. 

For which of the following elements does the electron configuration for the lowest energy state show a partially filled d orbital?
A)
Ti
B)
Rb
C)
Cu
D)
Ga
E)
Kr
 

 22. 

When electron configurations differ from expected, it is because orbitals want to be half-filled.
 

 23. 

Copper exhibits the expected electron configuration.
 

 24. 

Which of the following atoms would have the largest second ionization energy?
A)
Mg
B)
Cl
C)
S
D)
Ca
E)
Na
 

 25. 

Which of the following statements is false?
A)
A sodium atom has a smaller radius than a potassium atom.
B)
A neon atom has a smaller radius than an oxygen atom.
C)
A fluorine atom has a smaller first ionization energy than an oxygen atom.
D)
A cesium atom has a smaller first ionization energy than a lithium atom.
E)
All are true.
 

 26. 

Photogray lenses incorporate small amounts of silver chloride in the glass of the lens. The following reaction occurs in the light, causing the lenses to darken:
               AgCl ® Ag + Cl
The enthalpy change for this reaction is 3.10 ´ 102 kJ/mol. Assuming all this energy is supplied by light, what is the maximum wavelength of light that can cause this reaction?
 

 27. 

The __________ quantum number is related to the size and energy of the orbital.
 
 
Given the following electronic configuration of neutral atoms, identify the element and state the number of unpaired electrons in its ground state:
 

 28. 

[Ne]3s23p5
 

 29. 

[Ar]4s13d10
 

 30. 

In general, the ionization energy and electron affinity involve more energy from __________ (left to right or right to left) in a period of the periodic table. Why?
 
 
Choose the atom or ion using a periodic table.
 

 31. 

Larger first ionization energy, C or N
 

 32. 

When a metal reacts with a nonmetal a covalent bond is formed.
 

 33. 

In the gaseous phase, which of the following diatomic molecules would be the most polar?
A)
CsF
B)
CsCl
C)
NaCl
D)
NaF
E)
LiF
 

 34. 

Based on electronegativity differences, which of the following is most likely to be ionic?
A)
CaF2
B)
Br2
C)
BH3
D)
NO
E)
CF4
 

 35. 

Which of the following has the smallest radius?
A)
Br
B)
S2–
C)
Xe
D)
Ca2+
E)
Kr
 

 36. 

Which of the following pairs is isoelectronic?
A)
Li+ and K+
B)
Na+ and Ne
C)
I and Cl
D)
S2– and Ne
E)
Al3+ and B3+
 

 37. 

The size in a series of isoelectronic ions increases as the nuclear charge increases.
 

 38. 

Which of the following ionic compounds has the smallest lattice energy (i.e., the lattice energy least favorable to a stable lattice)?
A)
LiF
B)
CsI
C)
NaCl
D)
BaO
E)
MgO
 

 39. 

Which of the following statements concerning lattice energy is false?
A)
It is often defined as the energy released when an ionic solid forms from its ions.
B)
MgO has a larger lattice energy than NaF.
C)
The lattice energy for a solid with 2+ and 2– ions should be two times that for a solid with 1+ and 1– ions.
D)
MgO has a larger lattice energy than LiF.
E)
All of these are true.
 

 40. 

Which of the following Lewis structures best describes BF3?
A)
mc040-1.jpg
B)
mc040-2.jpg
C)
mc040-3.jpg
D)
mc040-4.jpg
E)
mc040-5.jpg
 

 41. 

Which has the greater N–O bond length, NO2 or NO3?
A)
NO2
B)
NO3
C)
The bond lengths are the same.
D)
More information is needed.
E)
None of these (A-D).
 

 42. 

Choose the electron dot formula that most accurately describes the bonding in CS2. (Hint: Consider formal charges.)
A)
mc042-1.jpg
B)
mc042-2.jpg
C)
mc042-3.jpg
D)
mc042-4.jpg
E)
mc042-5.jpg
 

 43. 

Which of the following is not a valid resonance structure for N3?
A)
mc043-1.jpg
B)
mc043-2.jpg
C)
mc043-3.jpg
D)
mc043-4.jpg
E)
all are correct
 

 44. 

Which of the following molecules has a dipole moment?
A)
CH4
B)
CCl4
C)
CO2
D)
SO2
E)
none of these
 

 45. 

Which of the following is the correct order for molecules from most to least polar?
A)
CH4 > CF2Cl2 > CF2H2 > CCl4 > CCl2H2
B)
CH4 > CF2H2 > CF2Cl2 > CCl4 > CCl2H2
C)
CF2Cl2 > CF2H2 > CCl2H2 > CH4 = CCl4
D)
CF2H2 > CCl2H2 > CF2Cl2 > CH4 = CCl4
E)
CF2Cl2 > CF2H2 > CCl4 > CCl2H2 > CH4
 
 
Select the correct molecular structure for the given species from the choices below:
 

 46. 

PF6
A)
pyramidal
B)
tetrahedral
C)
square planar
D)
octahedral
E)
none of these
 
 
Select the correct molecular structure for the given species from the choices below:
 

 47. 

I3
A)
linear
B)
trigonal planar
C)
tetrahedral
D)
bent
E)
none of these
 

 48. 

ClF2+
A)
linear
B)
trigonal planar
C)
tetrahedral
D)
bent
E)
none of these
 

 49. 

The shape of a carbon dioxide molecule is linear.
 

 50. 

The ability of an atom in a molecule to attract shared electrons to itself is called __________.
 

 51. 

The __________ of a molecule shows how the valence electrons are arranged among the atoms in the molecule.
 
 
For each of the following compounds:
a)Draw the Lewis structure.
b)Give the shape of the molecule.
c)Indicate the polarity of the molecule.
 

 52. 

ICl4
 

 53. 

Which choice has the bonds listed in the order of INCREASING bond energy?
A)
HF < HCl < HBr
B)
C-O < C=O < CºO
C)
F2 < Cl2 < Br2
D)
N2 < CC bond in C2H4 < CC Bond in C2H6
E)
all the same
 



 
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